• naught@sh.itjust.works
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    5 months ago

    How is there a ranking of “goodness” at all, be it “bad, because suffering”, or “good, because joy”? That’s like demanding a serious answer for: “how many angels can dance on the tip of a needle?”

    The question was “is the joy worth the pain?” That’s a fairly simple question – not nonsense. Is there a point at which suffering outweighs joy? Are you to make that determination for a “hypothetical” person? The question is perhaps abstract and difficult to answer, but it’s perfectly valid.

    Rights aren’t given. They’re negotiated. I negotiate the right with the person that conceives the child with me.

    This is the transactional portion. I meant no ad hominem, it just sounds funny to me to put it this way. My point is that the child at no point enters into the question of consent. You’re saying there is no violation of consent because the person doesn’t exist yet, but what about when they do? I.e. when they are born? Did they consent to that? Does it matter to you?

    Who “gives” any rights from your point of view? God?

    Other humans. The only way to have a “right” is for the people around you to agree that you have them. Perhaps it’s more complicated than that if you want to get extra philosophical, because I do believe that all conscious beings deserve the least amount of suffering possible purely by virtue of them being aware – be they birds, pigs, cows, whatever. I think maybe that’s more morality than “rights,” but I’m not sure how clear the distinction is between them.

    You’re claiming by conceiving a child, you’re violating its’ consent. At that point, nothing exists, yet. It’s only a being whose consent can be violated in the hypothetical future.

    This isn’t what I am claiming. I am claiming that birth is a violation of consent. Conception is meaningless to me unless it comes to fruition and bears a conscious being.

    That only happens, because the whole anti-natalist reasons are paradoxical from the start.

    Can you describe the paradox? I found a paradox using your own words. If they were in jest or you were “meeting [my] non-sensical argument where it’s at” then please help me understand better.

    • Prunebutt@slrpnk.net
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      5 months ago

      The question is perhaps abstract and difficult to answer, but it’s perfectly valid.

      I say that it’s actually impossible to answer, except in the most extreme cases.

      My point is that the child at no point enters into the question of consent.

      That is because the question was about rights, not consent. The child can’t consent, because existence is a presupposition to consent. That’s why that anti-natalist gotcha doesn’t make sense. It doesn’t follow the rules of formal logic. It’s like a paradox, but formulated as a question.

      The only way to have a “right” is for the people around you to agree that you have them.

      In what way is that different to negotiation?

      I think maybe that’s more morality than “rights,” but I’m not sure how clear the distinction is between them.

      As I don’t really give much of a crap about the whole concept of rights, I’d say: forget about the distinction.

      I am claiming that birth is a violation of consent. Conception is meaningless to me unless it comes to fruition and bears a conscious being.

      But birth is a natural result of conception.

      Can you describe the paradox?

      As I said above: Existence is a presupposition to consent. The premise violates formal logic.

      • naught@sh.itjust.works
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        5 months ago

        I say that it’s actually impossible to answer, except in the most extreme cases.

        It’s certainly impossible to answer in a single broad stroke for everyone, but that doesn’t mean it’s not useful or relevant to think about.

        That is because the question was about rights, not consent.

        If that’s so, then we’re talking past one another. My point is that in my ethical framework, having a child is wrong. They are incapable of consenting as you point out, which is part of why I view it as wrong.

        Existence is a presupposition to consent.

        Why? The child surely exists before, during, and after its birth. Can’t it be that the unborn human is incapable of consent rather than creating a paradox? I understand the chicken-and-egg problem you are describing, but I think it’s incomplete. As a fully functioning human being now, if I look back at my birth, did I consent? Did I exist yet? I think I can say simply, “No, I did not consent to being born.” Whether you ascribe a negative, positive, or neutral value to this is up to you. In my opinion, it’s immoral.

        In what way is that different to negotiation?

        It isn’t. I don’t think we disagree on this

        But birth is a natural result of conception.

        Yes, however isn’t this logic used to argue against abortion? I’d argue that a person becomes a full “person” at birth, which is perhaps arbitrary, but we have to define that point somewhere. Regardless of when we say a person “exists”, they still cannot consent regardless.

        That all said, is anti-natalism completely correct for everyone? I don’t know. I’m sure our species going extinct would create lots of suffering for the dwindling population. Maybe on average, humans do not regret their existence. Does that mean it’s moral to make more conscious beings who are capable of feeling that regret?